Dear Sir,

I need some advice regarding the following issue :

Mr A purchased a new flat, sold it to Mr B after a few years and I am buying it from Mr B. Mr B purchased from Mr A around 20 years back. I am taking a home loan for the said purchase from a leading house who have sanctioned the loan but are raising issues before disbursement. The following are my questions :

1. The bank wants to see the original deed between the builder and Mr A, which is not available with Mr B. Without this they are unwilling to disburse the loan. Is this justified ? If not, how can I challenge them ? The property has been mutated with the KMC, taxes have been paid till date and the original deed between Mr A and Mr B is available.

2. If this is justified, how did they sanction the loan ?